BUYSIDERS
EST. 2025

Time-weighted versus money-weighted returns

Buysiders InstituteRead time: 13 minutes

How TWR and IRR are calculated, why the same portfolio can show both a gain and a loss, and why they cannot share a page uncorrected.

There are two fundamentally different ways to measure the return on a portfolio that receives contributions and pays out withdrawals. A time-weighted return (TWR) measures how well the assets performed, removing the effect of when money was added or taken away. A money-weighted return (MWR), which for practical purposes is the IRR, measures how well the investor's dollars did, giving more weight to periods when more dollars were invested.

Neither is more correct. They answer different questions. TWR asks 'how good was the manager at managing whatever money it was given?' MWR asks 'how much did the investor make, given when the money actually went in and came out?' When cash flows are small relative to the portfolio, the two numbers are close. When a large contribution or withdrawal lands just before a strong or weak period, they can diverge dramatically, even to opposite signs.

This matters to every allocator who reports across asset classes. Public equity and hedge fund managers report time-weighted returns; private funds report IRRs. Put both in one column of a board report and you are comparing two different kinds of number. This topic works through both calculations and shows how to compare them properly.

Key takeaways

  • TWR links the returns of sub-periods separated by each external cash flow, so the size and timing of contributions and withdrawals do not affect it.
  • MWR is the IRR of the investor's cash flows plus ending value, so it rises when more money is invested before good periods and falls when more is invested before bad ones.
  • The same portfolio can show a positive TWR and a negative MWR: in this topic's example, 3.9% a year time-weighted and -5.2% a year money-weighted.
  • Public and hedge fund managers report TWR because investors control the cash flows; private funds report IRR because the GP controls them.
  • Placing a public manager's TWR next to a private fund's IRR is an apples-to-oranges comparison; a public market equivalent (PME) method puts both on the same cash flows.
  • The GIPS standards set out when each type of return is appropriate for a manager's performance presentations.

Two questions, two returns

Imagine a portfolio manager who runs a strategy for a client. The client adds money and withdraws money on the client's own schedule. If the manager's return is measured in a way that depends on those decisions, the manager will look better or worse because of choices it did not make. A fair measure of the manager must strip them out. That is the time-weighted return.

Now look from the client's side. The client does not care about an abstract return on a hypothetical dollar held throughout. It cares about the money it actually had at risk. If it doubled its investment just before a crash, it lost more money than the manager's time-weighted return suggests. A measure of the client's experience must include the effect of those decisions. That is the money-weighted return.

The distinction is not about which asset class is involved. It is about who controlled the external cash flows. The measure that evaluates a decision-maker should include the decisions that party made and exclude the ones it did not.

TWR and MWR at a glance
Time-weighted return (TWR)Money-weighted return (MWR / IRR)
Question answeredHow did the assets perform?How did the investor's dollars perform?
Effect of cash flow timingRemovedIncluded
Data neededPortfolio value at every external cash flowDated cash flows plus beginning and ending values
Typical usersPublic equity, fixed income and hedge fund managersPrivate equity, venture, private credit, real estate and infrastructure funds
Right whenThe investor controls the cash flowsThe manager controls the cash flows, or the investor's own outcome is the question

Time-weighted return: linking sub-periods

To compute a TWR, split the measurement period into sub-periods at every external cash flow (a contribution or a withdrawal). Within each sub-period there are no external flows, so its return is simply the ending value divided by the starting value, minus one. The starting value of each sub-period includes the cash flow that just arrived. Then multiply one plus each sub-period return together (geometric linking) and subtract one.

Because each sub-period return is a ratio, it is unaffected by how many dollars were in the portfolio during that sub-period. A 20 percent gain on $100 and a 20 percent gain on $500 are both 20 percent. That is exactly what removes the influence of cash flow size and timing.

The requirement is data: the portfolio must be valued on the date of every external cash flow. For a daily-priced public equity portfolio this is routine. For an illiquid portfolio valued quarterly, the sub-periods can only be approximated, which is one practical reason private funds do not report TWR.

Sub-period return
R_k = V_end,k / V_start,k - 1
V_start,k
Portfolio value at the start of sub-period k, including any cash flow received at that moment
V_end,k
Portfolio value at the end of sub-period k, before any cash flow at that moment
Time-weighted return (geometric linking)
TWR = (1 + R_1) x (1 + R_2) x ... x (1 + R_n) - 1; annualized TWR = (1 + TWR)^(1 / years) - 1
R_k
Return of sub-period k
n
Number of sub-periods
years
Length of the whole measurement period in years
Worked example

Portfolio P: TWR with a large contribution after year 1

  • Start of year 1: the investor places $100m with a manager.
  • End of year 1: the portfolio is worth $120m. The investor immediately adds $380m, bringing it to $500m.
  • End of year 2: the portfolio is worth $450m.
  1. 1. Sub-period 1 return
    120 / 100 - 1 = 0.200
    +20.0%
  2. 2. Start value of sub-period 2
    120 + 380 = 500
    $500m
  3. 3. Sub-period 2 return
    450 / 500 - 1 = -0.100
    -10.0%
  4. 4. Linked two-year TWR
    (1.20 x 0.90) - 1 = 1.08 - 1 = 0.080
    +8.0%
  5. 5. Annualized TWR
    1.08^(1/2) - 1 = 0.039230
    +3.9% a year

The manager earned a positive time-weighted return of 8.0 percent over two years, 3.9 percent a year.

Money-weighted return: the IRR of the investor

The money-weighted return treats the investor's contributions as outflows and withdrawals as inflows, adds the ending value as a final inflow (and the beginning value as an initial outflow, if measurement starts partway through), and solves for the IRR. It is exactly the since-inception IRR described earlier in this section, applied to any portfolio.

Each dollar's return counts in proportion to how long and how heavily it was invested. In Portfolio P, $100m experienced the good year and $500m experienced the bad year. The bad year therefore dominates the result.

Money-weighted return (IRR)
-V_0 + sum over i of (-C_i) / (1 + MWR)^t_i + V_T / (1 + MWR)^T = 0
V_0
Beginning value (or first contribution) at time 0
C_i
External cash flow at time t_i: positive for a contribution, negative for a withdrawal
V_T
Ending value at time T
MWR
The annual rate that sets the equation to zero
Worked example

Portfolio P: MWR on the same facts

  • Investor cash flows: year 0 -$100m; year 1 -$380m; year 2 ending value +$450m.
  1. 1. Equation
    -100 - 380 / (1 + r) + 450 / (1 + r)^2 = 0
    Solve for r
  2. 2. Solve numerically
    r = -0.052194
    -5.2% a year
  3. 3. Check
    -100 - 380 / 0.947806 + 450 / 0.947806^2 = -100 - 400.926 + 500.926 = 0.000
    NPV = 0
  4. 4. Dollar result
    450 - (100 + 380) = -30
    $30m loss
  5. 5. Compare with TWR
    +3.9% a year TWR versus -5.2% a year MWR
    Difference of 9.1 points

The investor lost $30m and earned -5.2 percent a year on its money, while the manager produced +3.9 percent a year on a time-weighted basis. Both statements are true.

Why they diverge: the mirror case

The gap in Portfolio P came entirely from timing: the investor added most of its money just before the weak year. Reverse the order of the returns and keep the same kind of contribution, and the gap reverses too. In Portfolio Q, the first year loses 10 percent and the second gains 20 percent, and the investor adds $410m after the loss. The TWR is identical, 8.0 percent over two years, because the product 0.90 x 1.20 equals 1.20 x 0.90. But now most of the money experiences the good year, and the MWR is strongly positive.

The pattern generalizes. MWR is above TWR when contributions precede strong periods (or withdrawals precede weak ones), and below TWR when contributions precede weak periods (or withdrawals precede strong ones). The gap is larger when the cash flows are large relative to the portfolio and when returns vary a lot between sub-periods. If there are no external cash flows at all, the two measures are identical.

Worked example

Portfolio Q: same TWR, very different MWR

  • Start of year 1: $100m. End of year 1: $90m. Investor adds $410m, bringing it to $500m. End of year 2: $600m.
  1. 1. Sub-period returns
    90 / 100 - 1 = -0.100; 600 / 500 - 1 = +0.200
    -10.0%, +20.0%
  2. 2. Two-year TWR
    0.90 x 1.20 - 1 = 0.080
    +8.0% (3.9% a year)
  3. 3. MWR
    solve -100 - 410 / (1 + r) + 600 / (1 + r)^2 = 0; r = 0.144135
    +14.4% a year
  4. 4. Dollar result
    600 - (100 + 410) = 90
    $90m gain

Portfolios P and Q have the same manager performance, 3.9 percent a year time-weighted, but the investors earned -5.2 percent and +14.4 percent a year respectively, purely because of when they added money.

Portfolios P and Q compared
Portfolio PPortfolio Q
Year 1 return+20.0%-10.0%
Contribution after year 1$380m$410m
Year 2 return-10.0%+20.0%
Ending value$450m$600m
TWR, two years (annualized)8.0% (3.9%)8.0% (3.9%)
MWR, annualized-5.2%+14.4%
Dollar gain or loss-$30m+$90m

A shortcut: the Modified Dietz approximation

Before daily valuation was routine, managers approximated money-weighted returns within a period with the Modified Dietz method. It divides the investment gain by the average capital invested, where each cash flow is weighted by the fraction of the period it was in the portfolio. It avoids iteration and is still used to estimate returns for sub-periods when a valuation on the exact date of a cash flow is not available.

Modified Dietz is a money-weighted measure and is close to the IRR over the same period when flows and returns are moderate. It is not a time-weighted return on its own, though linking Modified Dietz returns for short sub-periods (such as months) is a common way to approximate a TWR.

Modified Dietz return
R_MD = (V_end - V_start - sum CF_i) / (V_start + sum (w_i x CF_i))
V_start, V_end
Portfolio values at the start and end of the period
CF_i
External cash flow i, positive for contributions and negative for withdrawals
w_i
Fraction of the period remaining after cash flow i arrives
The result is a return for the whole period, not an annual rate.
Worked example

Modified Dietz over the two years of Portfolio P

  • V_start = 100, V_end = 450, one contribution of 380 at the midpoint of the two-year period, so w = 0.5.
  1. 1. Gain
    450 - 100 - 380 = -30
    -$30m
  2. 2. Average capital
    100 + 0.5 x 380 = 290
    $290m
  3. 3. Modified Dietz return
    -30 / 290 = -0.1034
    -10.3% over two years
  4. 4. IRR over two years for comparison
    (1 - 0.052194)^2 - 1 = -0.1017
    -10.2% over two years
  5. 5. Portfolio Q for comparison
    Dietz 90 / (100 + 0.5 x 410) = 90 / 305 = 0.2951; IRR (1.144135)^2 - 1 = 0.3090
    29.5% versus 30.9%

Modified Dietz lands close to the two-year IRR in both cases, and far from the 8.0 percent TWR, confirming that it is a money-weighted measure.

Why public managers use TWR and private funds use IRR

In a mutual fund, a separately managed account or a hedge fund, the investor decides when to subscribe and when to redeem (subject to notice periods, lockups and gates in hedge funds). The manager has to invest whatever arrives. Holding the manager responsible for the timing of those flows would be unfair, so these managers report TWR, and hedge funds typically publish monthly returns computed from NAV per share, which is time-weighted by construction.

In a private fund, the GP decides when to call capital and when to distribute it. Timing is part of the manager's skill: calling capital only when an attractive deal is ready, and returning it promptly after an exit, are decisions the GP makes and should be judged on. The IRR includes exactly those decisions. That, together with the practical fact that private assets are valued only periodically, is why private fund performance is reported as IRR.

The GIPS standards, the global investment performance standards maintained by CFA Institute, reflect this logic. In broad terms, they call for time-weighted returns in most cases and permit money-weighted returns where the manager controls the external cash flows, as in a closed-end private fund. A manager's GIPS report should state which method was used.

The comparison trap

A typical board report lists each asset class with its return over the same horizon: public equity 10-year return, fixed income 10-year return, private equity 10-year return. The public figures are almost always TWRs from the managers or the custodian. The private equity figure is almost always a pooled IRR. They look alike and sit in the same column. They are not comparable.

Portfolios P and Q show why. Suppose Portfolio P is an index fund and the investor is a pension plan contributing on its own schedule. The index fund reports 3.9 percent a year. Now suppose a private fund happened to call capital on the same dates and produced exactly the index's returns. It would report an IRR of -5.2 percent a year. A board reading the two figures side by side would conclude that private equity underperformed public equity by 9.1 points a year, when their underlying performance was identical.

The fix is to evaluate the public alternative on the private fund's own cash flows. That is what public market equivalent (PME) methods do. The Kaplan-Schoar PME, for example, discounts the fund's contributions and distributions by the index's cumulative return and divides the present value of distributions (including ending NAV) by the present value of contributions. A result above 1.0 means the fund beat the index on the same cash flows; below 1.0, it lagged. Other methods, such as Long-Nickels PME and direct alpha, answer the same question in IRR terms.

Kaplan-Schoar PME
KS-PME = sum over t of (D_t / I_t) / sum over t of (C_t / I_t), with I_t = index level at t / index level at the first cash flow
D_t
Distributions at time t, with ending NAV treated as a distribution on the final date
C_t
Contributions at time t
I_t
Cumulative growth of the index from the first cash flow to time t
Worked example

PME puts Portfolio P on a like-for-like basis

  • A private fund with LP cash flows identical to Portfolio P: -100 at year 0, -380 at year 1, ending NAV 450 at year 2.
  • Index path: +20% in year 1, -10% in year 2, so I_0 = 1.00, I_1 = 1.20, I_2 = 1.08.
  1. 1. Fund IRR
    as computed above
    -5.2% a year
  2. 2. Index TWR
    as computed above
    +3.9% a year
  3. 3. PV of contributions at index returns
    100 / 1.00 + 380 / 1.20 = 100 + 316.667 = 416.667
    416.667
  4. 4. PV of distributions at index returns
    450 / 1.08 = 416.667
    416.667
  5. 5. KS-PME
    416.667 / 416.667 = 1.00
    1.00

On the same cash flows, the fund exactly matched the index (PME of 1.00). The 9.1-point gap between the IRR and the TWR was entirely an artifact of comparing two different measures. Portfolio Q gives a PME of 1.00 as well: (600 / 1.08) / (100 + 410 / 0.90) = 555.556 / 555.556.

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