A leveraged buyout (LBO) is the acquisition of a company financed with a large amount of borrowed money, secured on the company's own assets and repaid from its own cash flow. The buyer, usually a private equity firm (the sponsor), contributes a minority of the purchase price as equity and borrows the rest. If the business performs, the debt is paid down over a holding period of several years, the company is sold, and the equity, having been a small slice of a large enterprise value, captures the gain.
The LBO model is the tool that tests whether that plan works. It answers three questions for an investment committee: what return the equity earns at a given entry price, exit price and holding period; how much debt the business can carry and repay without breaching its capacity to pay interest; and, turned around, the maximum price a sponsor can pay and still earn its target return. Lenders build the same model to judge whether they will be repaid.
This topic builds a complete model for one hypothetical company, Linwood Specialty Coatings, acquired by a sponsor's Fund A. Every schedule is shown in full: entry valuation, sources and uses, five years of operating projections, free cash flow, a debt schedule with mandatory amortization and a 100 percent cash sweep, credit statistics, exit value, and the equity multiple and internal rate of return, with the IRR solved numerically. The next topic takes the same deal apart to show where the return came from.
Key takeaways
- Sources must equal uses: the purchase enterprise value, transaction and financing fees and cash left on the balance sheet are funded by debt tranches and sponsor equity.
- Free cash flow available for debt repayment equals net income plus D&A, less capex, less the increase in net working capital; mandatory amortization is paid first and a cash sweep applies the rest to prepayable debt.
- Computing interest on beginning-of-year balances avoids a circular reference; interest on average balances is more accurate but makes interest depend on the repayment it helps determine.
- Equity value at exit equals exit enterprise value less net debt at exit, and MOIC equals exit equity divided by entry equity.
- IRR is the discount rate that sets the net present value of the sponsor's cash flows to zero, found by iteration; with one investment and one exit it equals MOIC to the power of one over the holding period, less one.
- In the Linwood example, $495.0m of equity grows to $1,114.9m in five years: a 2.25x MOIC and a 17.6 percent IRR.
What an LBO model answers
A DCF values a business from its cash flows at a blended cost of capital. An LBO model looks at the same cash flows from one investor's seat: the sponsor's equity. It lays out a specific financing structure, runs the business forward year by year, sends the cash to lenders in a defined order, and measures what is left for the equity at exit. The output is not a value but a return, compared with the return the sponsor requires.
Three levers create the return. The operating business grows its EBITDA. The company repays debt from its cash flow, so a larger share of enterprise value belongs to equity at exit. And the exit multiple may be higher or lower than the entry multiple. Leverage does not create value by itself, but because the equity check is small relative to enterprise value, each dollar of value gained is a larger percentage gain on equity.
The model is built in a fixed order, because each schedule feeds the next: entry valuation and sources and uses; operating projections down to EBIT; the debt schedule, which supplies interest; net income and free cash flow, which supply the cash available for repayment; and finally exit value and returns.
| Schedule | Main inputs | Feeds |
|---|---|---|
| Entry valuation | LTM EBITDA, purchase multiple | Uses of funds |
| Sources and uses | Debt sizing as multiples of EBITDA, fees, minimum cash | Opening debt balances and sponsor equity |
| Operating projections | Revenue growth, margins, D&A, capex, working capital | EBIT and free cash flow |
| Debt schedule | Interest rates, amortization, sweep percentage | Interest expense and ending debt |
| Cash flow | Net income, non-cash items, investment | Cash available for repayment |
| Exit and returns | Exit multiple, exit year, net debt at exit | Exit equity, MOIC, IRR |
The deal: Linwood Specialty Coatings
Linwood Specialty Coatings is a hypothetical producer of industrial coatings with LTM revenue of $500.0m and LTM EBITDA of $100.0m, a 20.0 percent margin. Fund A agrees to acquire 100 percent of the company at 10.0x LTM EBITDA on a cash-free, debt-free basis. That phrase means the headline price is an enterprise value: the sellers deliver the business with no debt and no surplus cash, and any existing debt is repaid out of the price at closing.
Debt is sized as a multiple of LTM EBITDA, because lenders think in those terms and set limits on them. Here the lenders offer a senior secured term loan of 4.0x EBITDA and senior subordinated notes of 1.5x, total leverage of 5.5x. The sponsor funds the rest with equity.
- LTM EBITDA
- EBITDA for the last twelve months before closing, adjusted for non-recurring items.
- Purchase multiple
- Entry EV/EBITDA agreed with the seller.
- Leverage multiple
- Debt of the tranche as a multiple of LTM EBITDA, as agreed with lenders.
Linwood Specialty Coatings: entry valuation and financing terms
- LTM revenue $500.0m; LTM EBITDA $100.0m. Purchase multiple 10.0x, cash-free and debt-free. Figures in $m.
- Term loan: 4.0x EBITDA, 7.0 percent interest (treated as a fixed all-in rate for simplicity), 1 percent of original principal amortized each year, prepayable at par.
- Senior subordinated notes: 1.5x EBITDA, 10.0 percent cash interest, repaid in full at maturity after the holding period, not prepayable in the model.
- Transaction fees (advisers, diligence) $20.0m; financing fees $15.0m; minimum cash to be held on the balance sheet $10.0m.
- 1. Entry enterprise value100.0 x 10.0$1,000.0m
- 2. Term loan100.0 x 4.0$400.0m
- 3. Senior subordinated notes100.0 x 1.5$150.0m
- 4. Total debt and leverage400.0 + 150.0; 550.0 / 100.0$550.0m; 5.5x
- 5. Annual mandatory amortization1% x 400.0$4.0m
- 6. First-year interest on opening balances400.0 x 7.0% + 150.0 x 10.0% = 28.0 + 15.0$43.0m
- 7. Pro forma LTM interest coverage100.0 / 43.02.3x
Fund A is buying a $1,000.0m business with $550.0m of debt, 5.5x EBITDA, which costs $43.0m of interest in the first year, covered 2.3 times by LTM EBITDA.
Sources and uses of funds
The sources and uses table is the deal on one page. Uses list everything the money is spent on at closing: the purchase enterprise value (which pays the sellers and retires any existing debt), transaction fees, financing fees paid to lenders and arrangers, and cash put on the balance sheet so the company can operate from day one. Sources list where the money comes from: each debt tranche, sponsor equity and, where relevant, equity rolled over by management or sellers.
Sponsor equity is the plug. Once uses are fixed and the debt is sized, equity is whatever makes the two columns equal. That makes the check mechanical: if sources do not equal uses, something is missing.
Accounting treatment differs by fee type. Under both US GAAP and IFRS, debt issuance costs are generally deducted from the carrying amount of the debt and amortized into interest expense over the life of the loan, while acquisition-related transaction costs are expensed. For clarity, this model treats both fees as cash paid at closing and ignores the later non-cash amortization and its small tax effect. A full model would include it.
- Purchase EV
- Price paid for the business on a cash-free, debt-free basis; it covers the payment to sellers and the repayment of existing debt.
- Cash to balance sheet
- Minimum operating cash funded at closing.
- Sponsor equity
- Equity contributed by the private equity fund, the balancing item.
| Sources | $m | % of total | x LTM EBITDA | Uses | $m |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Term loan (7.0%) | 400.0 | 38.3% | 4.00x | Purchase enterprise value | 1,000.0 |
| Senior subordinated notes (10.0%) | 150.0 | 14.4% | 1.50x | Transaction fees | 20.0 |
| Sponsor equity (Fund A) | 495.0 | 47.4% | 4.95x | Financing fees | 15.0 |
| Cash to balance sheet | 10.0 | ||||
| Total sources | 1,045.0 | 100.0% | 10.45x | Total uses | 1,045.0 |
Operating projections and the income statement
The operating case runs from revenue to EBIT without reference to financing. Linwood's plan assumes revenue growth of 6 percent in years 1 and 2 and 5 percent in years 3 to 5, with the EBITDA margin rising from 20.0 to 21.0 percent by year 3 through procurement savings and pricing. D&A is 3.0 percent of revenue, capex 3.5 percent and net working capital 10 percent of revenue, so each year's working capital investment is 10 percent of the revenue increase. The tax rate is 25 percent.
Below EBIT the income statement depends on the debt schedule: interest comes from it, and in turn the debt schedule needs net income to compute cash flow. This is the loop the next two sections resolve.
To keep every table adding exactly, this model rounds each line to $0.1m as it is calculated. The rounding changes the returns by less than a hundredth of a percentage point compared with carrying full precision.
| Line | LTM (Year 0) | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 | Year 5 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Revenue growth | 6.0% | 6.0% | 5.0% | 5.0% | 5.0% | |
| Revenue | 500.0 | 530.0 | 561.8 | 589.9 | 619.4 | 650.4 |
| EBITDA margin | 20.0% | 20.0% | 20.5% | 21.0% | 21.0% | 21.0% |
| EBITDA | 100.0 | 106.0 | 115.2 | 123.9 | 130.1 | 136.6 |
| Less D&A (3.0% of revenue) | (15.9) | (16.9) | (17.7) | (18.6) | (19.5) | |
| EBIT | 90.1 | 98.3 | 106.2 | 111.5 | 117.1 | |
| Less term loan interest | (28.0) | (25.9) | (23.3) | (20.2) | (16.6) | |
| Less notes interest | (15.0) | (15.0) | (15.0) | (15.0) | (15.0) | |
| Pretax income | 47.1 | 57.4 | 67.9 | 76.3 | 85.5 | |
| Less taxes (25%) | (11.8) | (14.4) | (17.0) | (19.1) | (21.4) | |
| Net income | 35.3 | 43.0 | 50.9 | 57.2 | 64.1 |
Free cash flow available for debt repayment
The cash that can repay debt is levered free cash flow: net income, plus non-cash charges, less the investment the business needs. Unlike the unlevered free cash flow in a DCF, it is after interest, because interest is paid before any principal. It is before debt repayment, because repayment is what it funds.
Linwood's minimum cash balance of $10.0m was funded at closing and stays constant, so all free cash flow is available for debt service. If the plan had required cash to build up (for a seasonal peak or an acquisition), the model would hold it back before the sweep.
- Net income
- After interest and taxes, from the projected income statement.
- Increase in NWC
- Change in net working capital; here 10 percent of the year's revenue increase.
- Minimum cash
- Cash the company must keep to operate, $10.0m for Linwood.
- Mandatory amortization
- Scheduled principal repayment required by the loan agreement.
| Line | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 | Year 5 | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Net income | 35.3 | 43.0 | 50.9 | 57.2 | 64.1 | 250.5 |
| Plus D&A | 15.9 | 16.9 | 17.7 | 18.6 | 19.5 | 88.6 |
| Less capex (3.5% of revenue) | (18.6) | (19.7) | (20.6) | (21.7) | (22.8) | (103.4) |
| Less increase in NWC | (3.0) | (3.2) | (2.8) | (3.0) | (3.1) | (15.1) |
| Levered free cash flow | 29.6 | 37.0 | 45.2 | 51.1 | 57.7 | 220.6 |
Linwood Specialty Coatings: year 1 cash flow, line by line
- Year 1 revenue $530.0m, year 0 revenue $500.0m, EBITDA $106.0m. Opening term loan $400.0m at 7.0 percent; notes $150.0m at 10.0 percent. Tax 25 percent.
- 1. D&A530.0 x 3.0%$15.9m
- 2. EBIT106.0 - 15.9$90.1m
- 3. Interest on beginning balances400.0 x 7.0% + 150.0 x 10.0% = 28.0 + 15.0$43.0m
- 4. Pretax income90.1 - 43.0$47.1m
- 5. Taxes47.1 x 25%$11.8mUnrounded 11.775, rounded to $0.1m.
- 6. Net income47.1 - 11.8$35.3m
- 7. Capex530.0 x 3.5%$18.6mUnrounded 18.55.
- 8. Increase in NWC10% x (530.0 - 500.0)$3.0m
- 9. Levered free cash flow35.3 + 15.9 - 18.6 - 3.0$29.6m
Linwood generates $29.6m of cash in year 1 after interest, taxes and reinvestment. Of its $106.0m EBITDA, $43.0m goes to interest, $11.8m to tax, $18.6m to capex and $3.0m to working capital.
The debt schedule: amortization and the cash sweep
The debt schedule applies cash in the order the loan documents require. First, interest, already deducted in net income. Second, mandatory amortization on the term loan, $4.0m a year. Third, the cash sweep: the credit agreement requires excess cash flow to prepay the term loan. This model sweeps 100 percent of it, the maximum pace of deleveraging. In practice, term loan agreements usually set an excess cash flow sweep at a stated percentage that steps down as leverage falls, and the definition of excess cash flow is negotiated; model the actual terms when they are known.
The notes are not touched. Subordinated notes typically carry call protection that makes early repayment expensive, and they rank behind the term loan, so they stay outstanding until the exit, when they are repaid from the sale proceeds.
Interest here is computed on each tranche's beginning-of-year balance. That is a deliberate convention. Debt is actually repaid through the year, so interest on the average of beginning and ending balances is more accurate. But the ending balance depends on the sweep, the sweep depends on free cash flow, free cash flow depends on net income, and net income depends on interest. Using average balances therefore makes interest a function of itself, a circular reference that a spreadsheet can only solve by iterative calculation. Iteration works, but a circular model can fail to converge or hide errors, so many practitioners use beginning balances (slightly overstating interest while debt is falling) or break the loop with a switch.
- Sweep %
- Share of excess cash applied to prepay the term loan; 100 percent in this model.
- Cash available for optional repayment
- Levered FCF plus beginning cash less minimum cash less mandatory amortization.
- Beginning balance
- Principal outstanding at the start of the year, equal to the prior year ending balance.
| Line | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 | Year 5 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Levered free cash flow | 29.6 | 37.0 | 45.2 | 51.1 | 57.7 |
| Less mandatory amortization | (4.0) | (4.0) | (4.0) | (4.0) | (4.0) |
| Cash available for sweep | 25.6 | 33.0 | 41.2 | 47.1 | 53.7 |
| Term loan, beginning | 400.0 | 370.4 | 333.4 | 288.2 | 237.1 |
| Mandatory amortization | (4.0) | (4.0) | (4.0) | (4.0) | (4.0) |
| Cash sweep (100%) | (25.6) | (33.0) | (41.2) | (47.1) | (53.7) |
| Term loan, ending | 370.4 | 333.4 | 288.2 | 237.1 | 179.4 |
| Term loan interest at 7.0% of beginning | 28.0 | 25.9 | 23.3 | 20.2 | 16.6 |
| Senior notes, beginning and ending | 150.0 | 150.0 | 150.0 | 150.0 | 150.0 |
| Notes interest at 10.0% | 15.0 | 15.0 | 15.0 | 15.0 | 15.0 |
| Cash, ending (held at minimum) | 10.0 | 10.0 | 10.0 | 10.0 | 10.0 |
| Total debt, ending | 520.4 | 483.4 | 438.2 | 387.1 | 329.4 |
| Net debt, ending | 510.4 | 473.4 | 428.2 | 377.1 | 319.4 |
Credit statistics through the hold
Lenders and the investment committee read the same schedule through credit ratios. Total leverage (total debt divided by EBITDA) shows how many years of EBITDA the debt represents; senior leverage does the same for the term loan alone; interest coverage (EBITDA divided by interest) shows how comfortably operating earnings meet interest. Loan agreements often contain maintenance covenants set on such ratios, though many sponsor-backed term loans are covenant-lite, with tests only on the revolving credit facility.
Linwood deleverages from 5.5x at closing to 2.4x by year 5, through a combination of EBITDA growth (the denominator rises 36.6 percent) and repayment (the term loan falls 55.15 percent, from $400.0m to $179.4m). Coverage nearly doubles, from 2.3x to 4.3x.
| Ratio | Closing | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Year 4 | Year 5 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Total debt / EBITDA | 5.5x | 4.9x | 4.2x | 3.5x | 3.0x | 2.4x |
| Term loan / EBITDA | 4.0x | 3.5x | 2.9x | 2.3x | 1.8x | 1.3x |
| EBITDA / interest | 2.3x | 2.5x | 2.8x | 3.2x | 3.7x | 4.3x |
| Cumulative term loan repaid | 0.00% | 7.40% | 16.65% | 27.95% | 40.73% | 55.15% |
Exit, equity value and MOIC
The model assumes Fund A sells Linwood at the end of year 5 at 10.5x year 5 EBITDA. Exit enterprise value is paid to all capital providers: the buyer, in effect, repays the remaining term loan and notes, and the sellers keep the balance sheet cash. What remains is equity value at exit.
The base case assumes a modest rise in the multiple, from 10.0x to 10.5x. Many investment committees insist on a base case exit at or below the entry multiple, so that the return does not depend on the market paying more for the same earnings. The next topic shows returns across a range of exit multiples and holding periods and how much of this deal's gain the extra half turn provides.
The multiple of invested capital (MOIC), also called the money multiple, divides the value returned to the equity by the equity invested. It ignores time: 2.25x in three years and 2.25x in seven years look identical, which is why it is always shown with IRR. The model also ignores exit costs and management incentive equity, both of which reduce the sponsor's proceeds in practice.
- Exit year EBITDA
- EBITDA for the final year of the hold, the LTM figure a buyer would price.
- Exit multiple
- Assumed EV/EBITDA at sale.
- Debt at exit
- All debt outstanding at the exit date, repaid from proceeds.
- Total value returned to equity
- Exit equity plus any dividends paid during the hold.
Linwood Specialty Coatings: exit equity and MOIC
- Year 5 EBITDA $136.6m. Exit multiple 10.5x. At the end of year 5: term loan $179.4m, notes $150.0m, cash $10.0m.
- Sponsor equity invested at closing $495.0m. No dividends during the hold; exit costs ignored.
- 1. Exit enterprise value136.6 x 10.5$1,434.3m
- 2. Net debt at exit179.4 + 150.0 - 10.0$319.4m
- 3. Exit equity value1,434.3 - 319.4$1,114.9m
- 4. Equity gain1,114.9 - 495.0$619.9m
- 5. MOIC1,114.9 / 495.02.25xUnrounded 2.2523x.
- 6. Equity share of EV at entry(1,000.0 - 540.0) / 1,000.046.0%Net debt at closing 550.0 - 10.0 = 540.0.
- 7. Equity share of EV at exit1,114.9 / 1,434.377.7%
Fund A's $495.0m becomes $1,114.9m, a 2.25x MOIC. Equity's share of enterprise value rises from 46.0 percent to 77.7 percent as debt is repaid and EBITDA grows.
IRR, solved numerically
The internal rate of return is the annual discount rate at which the present value of the sponsor's cash inflows equals the present value of its outflows, so that net present value is zero. It accounts for timing: returning the same cash sooner gives a higher IRR.
IRR has no general algebraic solution. It is found by iteration: guess a rate, compute NPV, and adjust. If NPV is positive, the rate is too low; if negative, too high. Spreadsheet IRR functions use a refinement of this search. The secant method below converges quickly: from two guesses, draw a straight line through their NPVs and take the rate where the line crosses zero as the next guess.
When the sponsor makes one investment and receives one payment n years later, the IRR also has a closed form: MOIC to the power of 1 / n, less one. The numerical search should agree with it, which is a useful check. Once there are interim cash flows (dividends, add-on equity, fees), only the numerical method works.
- CFt
- Net cash flow to the sponsor in year t: negative for investment, positive for distributions and exit proceeds.
- r(k)
- The k-th guess for IRR in the iteration.
- n
- Holding period in years.
| Trial rate | Year 0 | Years 1 to 4 | Year 5 | Discount factor, year 5 | NPV |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 15.00% | (495.0) | 0.0 | 1,114.9 | 0.4972 | 59.30 |
| 17.00% | (495.0) | 0.0 | 1,114.9 | 0.4561 | 13.52 |
| 18.00% | (495.0) | 0.0 | 1,114.9 | 0.4371 | (7.67) |
| 17.60% | (495.0) | 0.0 | 1,114.9 | 0.4446 | 0.68 |
| 17.63% | (495.0) | 0.0 | 1,114.9 | 0.4440 | 0.05 |
Linwood Specialty Coatings: IRR by the secant method
- Cash flows: -495.0 at year 0; +1,114.9 at year 5. Starting guesses 15.00 percent (NPV 59.30) and 18.00 percent (NPV -7.67).
- 1. Iteration 118.00% - (-7.67) x (18.00% - 15.00%) / (-7.67 - 59.30)17.6565%NPV at 17.6565 percent is -0.51.
- 2. Iteration 2Secant through 18.00% (NPV -7.67) and 17.6565% (NPV -0.51)17.6320%NPV 0.0048.
- 3. Iteration 3Secant through 17.6565% and 17.6320%17.6322%NPV rounds to 0.0000; converged.
- 4. Closed-form check(1,114.9 / 495.0)^(1/5) - 1 = 2.2523^0.2 - 117.6322%
The IRR is 17.6 percent. Three secant iterations match the closed form to four decimal places.